CPC Compliance and Regulatory Practice Exam

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• What does workers compensation insurance cover?
• Which component measures the time it takes to perform a service?
• How does the use of capitation affect healthcare providers?
• Which group of individuals is primarily covered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)?
• What manual is used for coding diagnoses?
• What is one goal of having a compliance hotline?
• What does the Anti-Kickback Statute aim to prevent?
• How is "compliance risk" defined?
• What types of facilities fall under the outpatient edits?
• Name one consequence of failing to adhere to industry regulations.
• In which situation would a prospective audit be particularly useful?
• What is the purpose of compliance training within organizations?
• What type of procedures does the Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System mainly regulate?
• What is the primary focus of outpatient coding?
• Which of the following is a key requirement of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
• What does GDPR stand for?
• What does ANSI stand for?
• Which of the following is true regarding the CMS-1500 claim form?
• Compliance programs should be tailored to the unique needs of an organization based on?
• What is a privacy policy?
• What is the objective of data protection regulations?
• Which type of training is most important for maintaining compliance with cybersecurity regulations?
• Who manages the plans for Medicare Part C?
• What role does a TPA (Third Party Administrator) play in healthcare?
• Which of the following services is covered by Medicaid?
• What is the importance of record-keeping in regulatory compliance?
• Why is confidentiality important for a compliance hotline?
• What are the two HIPAA standards code sets mentioned?
• Which act is known as HITECH?
• Which of the following is a primary function of MACs or FIs?
• What role does whistleblower protection play in compliance programs?
• Which one of these is considered a physician extender?
• Define "data breach" in the context of compliance.
• Who do physician edits apply to?
• What is an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)?
• What key feature characterizes ANSI electronic claims?
• How can organizations measure the effectiveness of their compliance programs?
• Which of the following is a primary goal of compliance programs?
• What is the National Coverage Determination (NCD)?
• What purpose do advanced billing contract codes serve?
• What does the CHAMPUS or TRICARE program provide insurance for?
• What role do internal controls play in compliance?
• All of the following are components of resource costs EXCEPT:
• What does the acronym PCI DSS stand for?
• What are the three components into which resource costs are divided?
• What does CCPA stand for, and what is its primary focus?
• Which type of provider is referred to as a mid-level provider?
• What is the core function of the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)?
• What is the purpose of an OIG compliance plan guidance?
• What does DSM IV stand for?
• What percentage of total relative value does physician work account for?
• What is the main focus of the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)?
• Which statement best describes the HOPPS?
• What type of reporting does a compliance hotline typically allow?
• If a company changes its compliance policies, what must it do to remain compliant?
• What does the Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment System (HOPPS) edits apply to?
• What is the primary purpose of the policy requirement for "minimum necessary" under HIPAA?
• What is the main objective of the Federal Trade Commission Act?
• Which of the following organizations is included in managed care organizations (MCO)?
• Which agency is primarily responsible for enforcing consumer protection laws?
• What does the acronym HCPCS stand for?
• What does Medigap Insurance primarily provide?
• What element is commonly included in compliance training programs?
• What does a Local Coverage Determination (LCD) provide?
• What is the main function of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)?
• Which insurance types are identified as the two primary types of insurers?
• What is the purpose of COB in healthcare coverage?
• What does EPSDT stand for in Medicaid programs?
• What is one key component of an effective compliance program?
• What is the significance of ethical standards in compliance?
• Having a compliance training program can help to mitigate which of the following?
• What does GPCI stand for and how is it used?
• What does MCO stand for in the context of healthcare?
• Which services are covered under Medicare Part B?
• What does the abbreviation PE stand for in the context of healthcare billing?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of the Medicare program?
• What does the term "whistleblower protection" refer to?
• In which context are physician edits utilized?
• Which entity is NOT considered a covered entity under HIPAA?
• In medical billing, what does the term "medical necessity" refer to?
• Which of the following is often a focus of compliance training?
• Which act regulates the collection and use of consumer credit information?
• What characterizes private payers in commercial insurance?
• What can be a major risk associated with data breaches?
• What is a compliance audit?
• What role does the Conversion Factor (CF) play in healthcare billing?
• Which aspect is critical in ensuring the effectiveness of a compliance hotline?
• What role do utilization review organizations play?
• What is HCPCS known for?
• Describe the purpose of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX).
• What type of billing does the Uniformed Bill (UB 04) primarily address?
• What does HIPAA stand for?
• What is the purpose of claim adjudication?
• What key outcome should organizations aim for through compliance training?
• What does a prospective audit refer to?
• What is the primary focus of the DSM IV?
• What does the acronym AML stand for in regulatory compliance?
• What distinguishes participating providers from non-participating providers?
• What is a breach notification requirement?
• Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Malpractice (MP) designation?
• What is the function of physician edits in relation to ambulatory surgery centers?
• What is the main purpose of the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)?
• What is the purpose of anti-bribery laws?
• What portion of total relative value does professional liability insurance (PLI) represent?
• Which component accounts for 44% of the total relative value for each service?
• What is the primary purpose of the CPC Compliance regulations?
• What is the primary objective of Managed Care Organizations (MCOs)?
• What is a primary benefit of having a compliance hotline in an organization?
• What is Medicaid primarily designed to assist with?
• Which component is the smallest in terms of percentage of total relative value?
• Which organization publishes the CPT coding system?
• State-funded insurance programs for children may cover which of the following?
• What is the impact of non-compliance on a business?
• Which of the following describes NSF in the context of electronic claims?
• What is the role of the compliance officer in an organization?
• Which of the following best describes capitation payment models?
• Which of the following is not a type of provider?
• What is the CMS-1500 also known as?
• What does the term "HCFA" refer to in the context of medical claims?
• What is the significance of the Red Flags Rule in compliance practices?
• How do compliance hotlines support ethical behavior within organizations?
• What is the national provider identifier used for?
• What does the acronym NIST stand for in the context of cybersecurity compliance?
• What benefit does a national provider identifier provide for healthcare providers?
• What does the CMS 1500 form primarily used for?
• How often should companies conduct compliance training for employees?
• Which aspect is crucial to successfully implementing compliance training?
• What does UCR refer to in healthcare billing?
• What is the key principle underlying "informed consent"?
• Which coding systems should coders learn for outpatient coding?
• Which method is often used to assess compliance risks in an organization?
• What does the term "conflict of interest" signify in compliance?
• Which principle is vital in fostering a culture of compliance?
• What is one type of paper claim used in medical billing?
• What does the OIG work plan provide guidance on?
• What is the role of practice expense in determining medical provider payment?
• What does COB stand for in the context of health insurance?
• What strategies can organizations use to foster a culture of compliance?
• What is the primary focus of managed care organizations (MCO)?
• What is the role of a Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC)?
• What does Medicare Part A cover?
• Medicare Part C typically combines the benefits of which parts?
• What does DRG represent in the healthcare context?
• What do commercial insurance plans typically include?
• What is a significant consequence of failing to comply with regulations?
• Which provider type operates out of network with insurance companies?
• How does the advanced billing contract impact alternative medicine?
• What is the purpose of the Medical Physician Fee Schedule (MPFS)?
• What is CHAMPVA designed to provide?
• Which best describes the role of compliance training programs?
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of government insurance?
• What does CMS delegate to MACs or FIs?
• Which of these is a component of a Local Coverage Determination (LCD)?
• What is the role of external audits in compliance?
• What does ARRA stand for in the context of health information technology?
• Regular training on compliance helps employees to effectively:
• In the context of compliance, what does "due diligence" refer to?
• What is a primary benefit of establishing a clear compliance program in an organization?
• What does "materiality" signify in compliance practices?
• Define "material misstatement" in the context of compliance audits.
• What is the key purpose of the Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA)?
• What type of code does the advanced billing contract represent?
• What is the purpose of a compliance risk assessment tool?
• What is the purpose of the written beneficiary notification known as the ABN?
• What is the most significant type of government insurance?
• What is the main focus of the Fair Consumer Reporting Act (FCRA)?
• Who typically works with ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS in medical coding?
• Which federal act establishes protections for consumer financial information?
• Which of the following codes is commonly associated with hospital claims?
• What does the resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) help to determine?
• What do CMS regulations primarily determine?
• What is an essential aspect of compliance in organizations?
• What is capitation in healthcare financing?
• What is a "risk assessment" in the context of regulatory compliance?
• Which agency is responsible for enforcing the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)?
• What is Medicare Part C also known as?
• What does the term "subpoena" refer to in a compliance context?
• What is a key responsibility of coders in hospital inpatient coding?
• What is the main goal of consumer protection laws?
• Which of the following could be a function of an EPSDT program?
• What is a qui tam lawsuit?
• What is the significance of the geographic cost index (GPCI) in medical billing?
• Which Medicare part is required to cover hospice care?
• What is a requirement of Medicare Part B for beneficiaries?
• What does COBRA allow individuals to do after leaving employment?
• What is the role of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)?
• What is one consequence of failing to implement an effective compliance program?
• What does "Know Your Customer" (KYC) refer to?
• Who funds and administers Medicaid benefits?
• What does Medicare Part D provide coverage for?
• How do regulatory agencies typically enforce compliance?